In an old math forum (which was written about 15 years ago), I saw this question posed by a student and it had no answer. It intrigued me, so here it goes:
If $3a+2b+3c=0 \hspace{.1cm}(1),$ prove that the polynomial $p(x)=ax^3+bx+c$ has at least one root in the interval $(0,2).$
So, my first process of thought was: Let $$f(x)=\displaystyle \int p(x)dx=\frac{ax^4}{4}+\frac{bx^2}{2}+cx+d$$ so that $f'(x)=p(x)$. If I could prove now that, perhaps, $\exists \hspace{.1cm} x_1,x_2\in A\subseteq[0,2]$ such that $f(x_1)=f(x_2)$, by Rolle's Theorem, I would have that there is $r \in (x_1,x_2)\subseteq[0,2]$ such that $p(r)=0$ holds. However, I do not seem to be getting anywhere. I would very much appreciate your suggestions!
Notice that $a = -\frac{3c + 2b}{3}$ and hence $$a x^3 + bx + c = -\frac{3c + 2b}{3} x^3 + bx + c = c(1 - x^3) + b\left(x - \frac{2x^3}{3}\right)$$
If $b = 0$, I can take $x = 1$, and if $c = 0$, I can take $x = \sqrt{3}/\sqrt{2}$. So from now I can assume that $c\neq 0$ and $b\neq 0$. It is sufficient to show that $$\frac{1 - x^3}{x - \frac{2x^3}{3}} = -\frac{b}{c}$$ for some $x\in (0, 2)$. It follows from a fact that the image of the function $g(x) = \frac{1 - x^3}{x - \frac{2x^3}{3}}$ on $(0, 2)$ is $\mathbb{R}$. Indeed, $g(1) = 0$. When $x$ goes from $1$ to $\sqrt{3}/\sqrt{2}$, this function goes from $0$ to $-\infty$. In turn, when we go from $1$ to $0$, the function goes from $0$ to $+\infty$.