I think the answer is "no", but I'm trying to find the flaw in this reasoning:
$A^2 = O \implies AA = O \implies A^{-1}AA = A^{-1}O \implies A = O$
This shouldn't be true, as far as I know, so what did I do that I'm not allowed to do?
I think the answer is "no", but I'm trying to find the flaw in this reasoning:
$A^2 = O \implies AA = O \implies A^{-1}AA = A^{-1}O \implies A = O$
This shouldn't be true, as far as I know, so what did I do that I'm not allowed to do?
The problem as indicated by comments is that $A$ is not necessarily invertible. $A^{-1}$ does not necessarily exist. So from $AA = O$ you cannot simply multiply both sides by $A^{-1}$.