If a field in a gauge theory is covariant is that the same as the covariant derivatives of the field are 0? I'd like a formal answer, coordinate free. E.g. the covariant derivative can be written as d \pm [A\wedge ] for some connection 1-form A
2026-03-26 06:42:45.1774507365
If a field in a gauge theory is covariant is that the same as the covariant derivatives of the field are 0?
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