I know there is a theorem saying if $f$ defined on $[a,b]$ is of bounded variation, then it is differentiable on $(a,b)$ a.e and $f'$ is integrable over $[a,b]$.
I wonder whether the converse is true, say, if $f$ defined on $[a,b]$ is differentiable on $(a,b)$ a.e and $f'$ is integrable, must $f$ have bounded variation?
In fact, I run into such concrete question: $$ f=x^\alpha \text{sin}\left(\frac{1}{x^\beta}\right) \text{ for $x\in(0,1]$} $$ and $f(0)=0$. The hint says that we can prove that when $\alpha > \beta$, $f$ is of bounded variation by showing $f'$ is integrable.
So here comes my question above, is such argument true?
Rudin, "Real & Complex Analysis", Theorem 7.21: If $f \in L^1[a,b]$ is differentiable at every point, then $f(x) - f(a) = \int_a^x f'(t) dt$.
Now consider $\psi_+(x) = \int_a^x \max(f'(t),0)\; dt$, $\psi_-(x) = \int_a^x \min(f'(t),0)\; dt$. Both are monotonic, hence of bounded variation. It follows that $f(x) = f(a)+\psi_+(x)+\psi_-(x)$ has bounded variation.
Note: To apply Rudin's theorem, $f$ must be differentiable everywhere, not just a.e.