I've learned that this is true. Why, basically? I'd appreciate you help.
2026-03-27 10:09:22.1774606162
If a group has one p-sylow subgroups, then this subgroup must be normal.
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Let $H < G$ be the unique $p$-Sylow subgroup. Let $x \in G$. Then $xHx^{-1}$ is another $p$-Sylow subgroup, so $xHx^{-1} = H$ i.e. $xH=Hx$. This condition for all $x$ implies $H$ is normal.