I'm trying to read the proof of the theorem:
If $A$ is well-ordered by $<$ and it's a subset of $\mathbb{R}$, then there is an order-embedding $f:A→ℚ$ and $A$ is countable.
If we knew that $A$ was countable since the beginning I wouldn't even ask this question, but since it's the conclusion of the theorem i don't understand. In the proof they say:
"For each $a\in A$, as long as $a$ is not the maximum element of $A$, $a$ will have a successor $a^+$ in $A$.
My question is, how can an element of a subset of $\mathbb{R}$ have a successor if $\mathbb{R}$ is uncountable? Is it because $A$ is well-ordered? but even if $A$ is well-ordered how can i know that it's also countable (without proving this theorem obviously and since the book I'm reading hasn't given any theorem for this)?
Yes, it's because $A$ is well-ordered.
This has nothing to do with countability, there are well-ordered sets that aren't countable, yet their elements still have successors.
Note that if $(E,<)$ is any well-ordered set (of any cardinality) and $a\in E$ is not a maximal element, then $\min\{b\in E\mid b>a\}$ is well defined (well-ordered means any nonempty subset has a minimum, here as $a$ is not maximal, this subset is nonempty), and is a successor of $a$.