Let $A$ be a $n \times n$ real matrix. Show that if $A^m = 0$, then $\mbox{rank}(A) \leq \frac{m-1}{m}{n}$
My attempt:
If $m=1$, then $A=0$ so $\mbox{rank}(A)=0$.
If $m=2$, we have $\mbox{im}(A) \subset \ker(A)$ so $2\operatorname{rank}(A) \leq \dim \mbox{im}(A) + \dim \ker(A)=n$
For arbitrary $m$, I want to use induction. $B=A|_{\mbox{im}(A)}$ satisfies $B^{m-1}=0$ so $\mbox{rank}(B) \leq \frac{m-2}{m-1}\mbox{rank}(A)$. Thus $\dim \ker B \geq \mbox{rank}(A)- \frac{m-2}{m-1}\mbox{rank}(A) =\frac{1}{m-1}\mbox{rank}(A)$ by rank-nullity theorem. Thus $n=\dim \ker A + \mbox{rank}(A) \geq \dim \ker B +\mbox{rank}(A)\geq \frac m {m-1}\mbox{rank}(A)$
Is this ok?
This is essentially correct. You should clarify that by $B=\left.A\right\rvert_{\operatorname{im}A}$ you mean the linear map $\operatorname{im}A\to\operatorname{im} A$ and not the map $\operatorname{im}A\to\Bbb R^n$. Depending on how much the person whom you are speaking to values your ability to fill in details, you might want to address the fact that:
your inductive hypothesis is that the inequality holds $(\forall k<m,\forall n,\forall A,\cdots)$ as opposed to, say, $n$ being fixed.
the inductive hypothesis speaks of matrices, but you have chosen the notation in the inductive step to speak of linear maps to a substantial length. This may be addressed easily in three ways that I can think of: (a) saying that in this specific instance the problem may be reformulated matricially; (b) describing the matrix of $B$ in some basis; (c) starting all over again by saying that you are considering the linear-map formulation of the problem.