Let $(a_n)_{\geq 2}$ with $a_2 > 0$ and $$a_{n+1}+1=(na_n+1)^{\frac{1}{n}}$$ Prove that $\displaystyle\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}\to 1$ and $na_n \to 0$, eventually using the inequality $$\ln(1+x)>\frac{x}{x+1}, \: \forall x>0$$
I managed to prove that $a_n \to 0$. Using Bernoulli's inequality we get that $(a_n)$ is decreasing and it is obviously bounded by 0. If it were convergent to $l \neq 0$, we yould have $$\lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{\ln(na_n+1)}{n}=\lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{\ln(na_n+1)}{na_n}\cdot a_n=0\cdot l=0$$ since $na_n \to \infty$ and so $\lim_{n \to \infty}(na_n+1)^{\frac{1}{n}}=1$ hence $$l+1=\lim_{n \to \infty}(a_{n+1}+1)=\lim_{n \to \infty}(na_n+1)^{\frac{1}{n}}=1$$ which is a contradiction, so $l=0$.
This is where I got stuck. I don't know how to approach either of these two limits, but I'm pretty sure that their hint with the $\ln(x+1)$ inequality must be used somehow.
$a_{n+1}+1\leq a_{n}+1$, implying that $\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}\leq 1$, is just a consequence of the AM-GM inequality.
On the other hand $n a_n\to 0$ implies that for any $n$ large enough $$ a_{n+1}+1=\exp\left(\frac{1}{n}\log(1+na_n)\right)>\exp\left(\frac{a_n}{na_n+1}\right)>\frac{a_n}{na_n+1}+1 $$ hence $\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}\geq 1-\varepsilon$ for any fixed $\varepsilon>0$.
In order to show $na_n\to 0$, you may notice that $a_n\to 0$ implies $$ \log(a_{n+1}+1)= a_{n+1}-O(a_{n+1}^2) = \frac{1}{n}\log(1+na_n) $$ and $n a_{n+1} -O(na_{n+1}^2) = \log(1+na_n)$ implies $na_n\to 0$.