Question: If A contains an open ball then $A^{\perp}=\left \{ 0 \right \}$
Let A $\subseteq$ a Hilbert space H contains an open ball of size $\epsilon >0.$
Suppose $A^{\perp}=\left \{ v \in A : \left \langle v,a \right \rangle=0 ,\forall a \in A, \forall v \neq 0 \right \}$
Hints will be appreciated.
Thanks in advance.
Hint (1): $A^{\perp}= \textbf{Span}(A)^{\perp}$ and $\textbf{Span}(A)^{\perp} = \{0\} \iff \overline{(\textbf{Span}(A))}= H$.
Hint (2):. Suppose $A^{\perp} \neq \{0\}$. There exists $v \neq 0 \in A^{\perp}$. There exists $B(A_0, \epsilon) \subset A$ by hypothesis. Then $A_0 + \frac{\epsilon}{2}\frac{v}{||v||} \in B(A_0, \epsilon)$. And $\langle A_0 + \frac{\epsilon}{2}\frac{v}{||v||}, v \rangle = \frac{\epsilon}{2}||v|| = \frac{\epsilon}{2}||v|| \neq 0$, therefore yielding a contradiction. The intuitive fact is the following: an open set possesses all the dimensions.