When I read GTM211, I was confused about this question :if a sum of ideals is the unit ideal, then 1 can be written as a finite sum of elements
2026-03-26 02:47:40.1774493260
If a sum of ideals is the unit ideal, then 1 can be written as a finite sum of elements?
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Each element of a sum of ideals is a (finite) sum of elements, each element from a distinct ideal in the sum.
Thus, if a sum of ideals is $(1)$, then since $1\in (1)$, it follows that $1$ can be so expressed.