If all $f_n(x) \to 0$ as $|x| \to \infty$ and $f_n \to f$ pointwise, does $f \to 0$ as $|x| \to \infty$?

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It sounds like it should be a standard result but I can't find a statement or proof of it. Does anyone have a reference or counterexample? Thanks.

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I don't think this is true. $$f_n(x) = \min\{1,\max\{0,n-x^2\}\}$$ should be a counterexample