The following question is taken from the practice set of JEE exam.
If $f(0)=0$ and $f'(x)\in(0,1]\;\;\forall x\in[0,1]\;$ then $\dfrac{\left(\int_0^1f'(x)dx\right)^2}{\int_0^1(f(x))^3}$ can not take values
- A) $\dfrac12$
- B) $2$
- C) $\dfrac14$
- D) $1$
Numerator can be written as $f^2(1)=\int_0^1f^2(1)dx$
Also, for $x\in(0,1), f'(x)>0\implies f(x)$ is increasing. So, we can say $\int_0^1f^2(1)dx>\int_0^1f^2(x)dx$
But don't know how to compare it to $f^3(x)$.
Can we say $\int_0^1f^2(1)dx>\int_0^1f^3(x)dx$?
Can we use Cauchy Schwarz inequality here? Not able to figure out how.
Yes, we can.
Note that by MVT, we have $$|f(1) - f(0)| = f'(\xi)|1-0| \in (0,1] \implies f(1) \in (0,1] \tag{$\star$}$$ for some $\xi \in (0,1]$. Therefore $$\int_0^1 f^3(x)dx < f^3(1) \overset{(\star)}\le f^2(1) = \int_0^1 f^2(1) dx$$ as you wish.