I did the following:
$$f(1-0) + 2f(0) = 3\cdot 0$$
$$f(1) + 2f(0) = 0$$
This reminds me of the equation of the straight line in the plane, then:
$$\left< \begin{pmatrix} {1}\\ {2} \end{pmatrix} , \begin{pmatrix} {f(1)}\\ {f(0)} \end{pmatrix} \right> =0$$
$(1,2)$ is a normal vector to $(f(1),f(0))$, then It's possible that: $(f(1)=-2,f(0)=1)$ because:
$$\left< \begin{pmatrix} {1}\\ {2} \end{pmatrix} , \begin{pmatrix} {-2}\\ {1} \end{pmatrix}\right> =-2+2=0$$
With generality, It is possible that for all $\alpha$:
$$\left< \begin{pmatrix} {1}\\ {2} \end{pmatrix} , \begin{pmatrix} {\alpha\cdot (-2)}\\ {\alpha \cdot 1} \end{pmatrix}\right> = \left< \begin{pmatrix} {1}\\ {2} \end{pmatrix} , \alpha \begin{pmatrix} { -2}\\ { 1} \end{pmatrix}\right> =1\cdot -2\alpha+2\alpha \cdot 1=-2\alpha + 2 \alpha =0$$
I tagged with "functional equations" because it seems to be related. I don't know if my solution is correct, what I'm saying with this is that there are infinite solutions but I don't know if assuming arbitrary values for $f(1),f(0)$ can be made because of $3x$.
EDIT: I know that It is possible to solve: $$f(1) + 2f(0) = 0$$ $$f(0) + 2f(1) = 3$$
And get the solution. But why do I have to use the latter instead of the former?
plugging in 0, you get $$ f(1) + 2f(0) = 0 $$ Now plug in 1 to get $$ f(0) + 2f(1) = 3 $$ and solve the linear system.