Suppose $f$ and $g$ have poles of order $m$ and $n$ respectively.What can be said about the sigularity of $f/g$?
I think that the answer is that the pole can be of any order, or even an essential point. Because $$f(z)=c_{-m}(z-z_0)^{-m}+...+c_0+c_1(z-z_0)+... \\ g(z)=d_{-n}(z-z_0)^{-n}+...+d_0+d_1(z-z_0)+...$$ Thus $${f\over g}(z)={c_{-m}(z-z_0)^{-m}+...+c_0+c_1(z-z_0)+...\over d_{-n}(z-z_0)^{-n}+...+d_0+d_1(z-z_0)+...}$$ Thus for all $k\in\mathbb{N}$ there can possibly be a monomial of order $-k$ with coefficient, for example, $e_{-k}=c_{-m}\cdot d_{M}$ with $M+m=k$.
But this is not the answer and I don't see why. Thanks.
If $f$ has a pole of order $m$ at $z_0$ and $g$ has a pole of order $n$ at $z_0$ then there exist analytic functions $F$ and $G$ in some disc around $z_0$ such that $f(z)=(z-z_0)^{m}F(z)$, $g(z)=(z-z_0)^{n}G(z)$ and $F(z) \neq 0, G(z) \neq 0$ in that disc. Hence $\frac {f(z)} {g(z)}=(z-z_0)^{m-n} H$ where $H=\frac F G$. Note that $H$ is analytic in the disc and does not vanish in it. What conclusions can you draw from this?