The question is:
Question. Let $f,g:\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$ be two functions that satisfy$$f(x-y)=f(x)\cdot g(y)-f(y)\cdot g(x)$$ and $$g(x-y)=g(x)\cdot g(y)+f(x)\cdot f(y)$$ for all $x,y \in \mathbb{R} $.
If the right hand derivative at $x=0$ exists for $f(x)$, then what is $g'(0)$ ?
My try:
By some simple substitutions I figured out that $f(0)=0$ and $g(0)=1$. If in the second equation, we put $x=y$, it will give $g(0)=(g(x))^2+(f(x))^2$. If $g(0)=0$, sum of the two squares becomes $0$ which implies the squares themselves are zero, I neglected $g(x)=f(x)=0$ as a trivial solution and hence took $g(0)=1$. But how do I proceed after this?
From the first equation, putting $x=y=0$, we get $f(0)=0$.
From the second equation, putting $x=y=0$, we get $g(0)=g^2(0)$. So, either $g(0)=1$ or $g(0)=0$.
If $g(0)=0$ then from the first equation, putting $y=0$, we get $f(x)=0$, for all $x$, and then from the second equation, putting $y=0$, we get $g(x)=0$ for all $x$. From where you can compute that the derivative equals to zero.
Let us assume for the rest that $g(0)=1$. From the first equation, putting $x=0$, we get $f(-y)=-f(y)$. And from the second, putting $x=0$, we get $g(-y)=g(y)$.
So the equations are equivalent to
Since $g$ is even it is enough to compute the derivative from the right.
$$\begin{align}\lim_{y\rightarrow0^+}\frac{g(0+y)-g(0)}{y}&=\lim_{y\rightarrow0^+}\frac{g(0+y)-g(0)}{y}\\&=\lim_{y\rightarrow0^+}\frac{-2f(y/2)f(y/2)}{y}\\&=-\lim_{y\rightarrow0^+}\frac{f^2(y/2)}{y/2}\\&=-f(0^+)f'_{+}(0)\\&=0\end{align}$$
To deduce it we use:
$$g(x)=g(\tfrac{x+y}{2}+\tfrac{x-y}{2})=g(\tfrac{x+y}{2})g(\tfrac{x-y}{2})-f(\tfrac{x+y}{2})f(\tfrac{x-y}{2})$$
$$g(y)=g(\tfrac{x+y}{2}-\tfrac{x-y}{2})=g(\tfrac{x+y}{2})g(\tfrac{x-y}{2})+f(\tfrac{x+y}{2})f(\tfrac{x-y}{2})$$
Subtracting the two equations we get
$$g(x)-g(y)=-2f(\tfrac{x+y}{2})f(\tfrac{x-y}{2})$$