I was trying to answer the following problem :
Let $G$ be a finite group and $ f : G \to \Bbb Z_8$ be a group epimorphism, then which of the following must be true ?
(a) $G$ is isomorphic to $Z_8$ .
(b) $G$ has a subgroup of order 8 .
(c) $G$ has a normal subgroup of order 8 .
(d) $G$ has a normal subgroup of index 2 .
My attempt:
Option (a) is clearly not true, since we can choose our $G$ to be $Z_{16}$ and $f$ to be defined as follows : $ f :Z_{16} \to Z_{8}$ , $ f(\bar 1) = \bar 1$ .
But I'm unable to draw any other conclusion. Thanks in advance for help.
Assertion (d) holds: take $H=f^{-1}\bigl(\{0,2,4,6\}\bigr)$. Then, since $\{0,2,4,6\}$ is a normal subgroup of $\mathbb{Z}_8$, $H$ is a normal subgroup of $G$. Furthermore$$G/H\simeq\mathbb{Z}_8/\{0,2,4,6\}\simeq\mathbb{Z}_2.$$