Let $f\in L^1(\mathbb R)$. So, I know that the Fourier transform is continuous. Indeed, $$|\hat f(\alpha +h)-\hat f(\alpha )|\leq \int_{\mathbb R}|f(x)||e^{-2i\pi xh}-1|dx,$$ and since $|e^{-2i\pi xh}-1|\leq 2$, we can apply dominated convergence. But I don't get why is it uniformly continuous. If $\hat f$ would be supported on a compact set, then it's obvious, but here, how can I conclude ?
2026-03-30 00:05:34.1774829134
If $f\in L^1$, why the Fourier transform $\hat f$ is uniformly continuous?
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Starting with your inequality $$|\hat f(\alpha +h)-\hat f(\alpha )|\leq \int_{\mathbb R}|f(x)||e^{-2i\pi xh}-1|dx,$$ observe that the r.h.s does not depend on $\alpha$, hence $$\sup_{\alpha\in\mathbb{R}}|\hat f(\alpha +h)-\hat f(\alpha )|\leq \int_{\mathbb R}|f(x)||e^{-2i\pi xh}-1|dx,$$ Since $f\in L^1(\mathbb{R})$, the r.h.s tends to zero as $h\to 0$, (by the dominated convergence theorem), hence $$\lim_{h\to 0}\sup_{\alpha\in\mathbb{R}}|\hat f(\alpha +h)-\hat f(\alpha )|=0,$$ and this is equivalent to saying that $\hat{f}$ is uniformly continuous.