Let $f:[a, b]\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be a function. My question is:
If $f$ is a convex function and $f(x)\geq f(a)$ for all $a\leq x\leq b$, then $f$ is increasing.
I know that if $f$ is differentiable on $(a, b)$, then $f$ is convex if and only if $f^\prime$ is increasing. But here we do not have the differentiability.
Anyone can help me. Thanks
If $a<x_1<x_2\leq b$,then $$\frac{f(x_2)-f(x_1)}{x_2-x_1}\geq\frac{f(x_1)-f(a)}{x_1-a}\geq 0.$$ Moreover $f(x)\geq f(a)$ for $a\leq x\leq b$, so we have $f(x_1)\leq f(x_2)$ for any $a\leq x_1\leq x_2\leq b$, which completes the proof.