My question is how to prove the following assertion:
If $f : I\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ be a convex function, $I$ is unbounded above and $\delta>0$, then $f_{\delta} : I\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ defined by the equation $f_{\delta} = f(x + \delta) - f(x)$ for $x\in I$, is increasing. Please guide me?
I know that $f:(a, b)\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is convex if and only if there is an increasing function $g:(a, b)\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ and a point $c\in (a, b)$ such that for all $x\in (a, b)$, $f(x) - f(c) = \int_{c}^x g(t) dt$.
Let $x_1<x_2$ we want to prove that $$f(x_1+\delta)-f(x_1)\leq f(x_2+\delta)-f(x_2)$$ i.e. $$f(x_2)-f(x_1)\leq f(x_2+\delta)-f(x_1+\delta)$$ i.e. $$\frac{f(x_2)-f(x_1)}{x_2-x_1}\leq\frac{f(x_2+\delta)-f(x_1+\delta)}{x_2-x_1}\quad(*)$$ This inequality will follow by applying the increasing-chord-theorem for convex functions twice.
In our case, if $x_2<x_1+\delta$, then the theorem implies that $$\frac{f(x_2)-f(x_1)}{x_2-x_1}\leq\frac{f(x_1+\delta)-f(x_2)}{x_2-\delta}$$ but since $x_1+\delta<x_2+\delta$ we can continue this inequality by applying the theorem once again, to obtain $$\frac{f(x_1+\delta)-f(x_2)}{x_2-\delta}\leq \frac{f(x_2+\delta)-f(x_1+\delta)}{(x_2+\delta)-(x_1+\delta)}$$ and so combining these two inequalities we get $(*)$. If, on the other hand, $x_1+\delta\leq x_2$, then a similar argument, with a slightly different ordering of the points, proves the inequality $(*)$ again.