Claim: if $f$ is differentiable at $x = x_0$ then $f$ is continuous at $x = x_0$.
Please, see if I made some mistake in the proof below. I mention some theorems in the proof:
The condition to $f(x)$ be continuous at $x=x_0$ is $\lim\limits_{x\to x_0} f(x)=f(x_0)$.
(1) If $f(x)$ is differentiable at $x-x_0$, then $f'(x)=\lim\limits_{x\to x_0} \dfrac{f(x)-f(x_0)}{x-x_0}$ exists and the function is defined at $x=x_0$.
(2) Therefore, by the Limit Linearity Theorem, $\lim\limits_{x\to x_0} f(x)$ exists and we'll show it is equals $f(x_0)$.
(3) We'll do this by the Precise Limit Definion: given $ \epsilon>0, \exists\delta|0<|x-x_0|<\delta$, then $0<|f(x)-f(x_0)|<\epsilon$. As this limit exists by (2), we can make $f(x)$ as close to $f(x_0)$ as one wishes, therefore $\lim\limits_{x\to x_0} f(x)=f(x_0)$, what satisfies the condition for $f(x)$ be differentiable at $x=x_0$. The end.
$$\lim\limits_{x\to x_0}f(x)=\lim\limits_{x\to x_0}\left(f(x_0)+(x-x_0)\cdot\dfrac {f(x)-f(x_0)}{x-x_0}\right)=$$ $$\lim\limits_{x\to x_0}f(x_0)+\lim\limits_{x\to x_0}(x-x_0)\cdot\lim\limits_{x\to x_0}\dfrac {f(x)-f(x_0)}{x-x_0}=$$ $$f(x_0)+0\cdot f'(x_0)=f(x_0)$$