Let $f$ be an entire function with $\sup_{z\in\mathbb{C}}|f(z)/z|<\infty$. Show that $z=0$ is a removable singularity of $g(z):=f(z)/z$.
To prove the claim, I need to show that $0 = \lim_{z\to 0}(z-0)g(z) = \lim_{z\to 0}(f(z)$, that seems really obvious to me because if a fraction where the denominator goes to zero is bounded, then the nominator has to go to zero?
I would like to do that more formally. So what can I write for a proof?
In order to prove that $\lim_{z\to0}zg(z)=0$, take $\varepsilon>0$. Let $S=\sup_{z\in\mathbb{C}\setminus\{0\}}\left|\frac{f(z)}z\right|$. If $S=0$, then $f$ is the null function and the statment is trivial. Otherwise, let $\delta=\frac\varepsilon S$. Then$$|z|<\delta\iff|z|<\frac\varepsilon S\implies\bigl|f(z)\bigr|=|z|.\left|\frac{f(z)}z\right|<\frac\varepsilon S.S=\varepsilon.$$Therefore, by the definition of limit, $\lim_{z\to0}zg(z)=0$.