If $f$ is uniformly continuous in $\mathbb{R}$, then $g(x,y) = f(x) - f(y)$ is uniformly continuous in $\mathbb{R}^2$. Is this true or false?
I have no idea on how to approach this question, can someone help me?
If $f$ is uniformly continuous in $\mathbb{R}$, then $g(x,y) = f(x) - f(y)$ is uniformly continuous in $\mathbb{R}^2$. Is this true or false?
I have no idea on how to approach this question, can someone help me?
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Let's write out the definitions of what it means for a function $f: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ and a function $g:\mathbb{R^2} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ to be uniformly continuous.
Then we also have that
So we know that $f$ is uniformly continuous, i.e. $\forall \varepsilon >0$, $\exists$ $\delta > 0$ such that
Now we consider $g(x,y) = f(x) - f(y)$, then $$|g(x,y) - g(x',y')| = |f(x) - f(y) - f(x')+f(y')| \leq |f(x) - f(x')| + |f(y) - f(y')|$$
So simply set $\frac{\delta}{2}:=\max(\delta_1,\delta_2)$, then for $|x-x'| + |y-y'|<\delta$, we have $$|g(x,y) - g(x',y')| = |f(x) - f(y) - f(x')+f(y')| $$$$\leq |f(x) - f(x')| + |f(y) - f(y')| $$$$\leq \frac{\varepsilon}{2}+\frac{\varepsilon}{2} = \varepsilon$$ as required.
Edit: with these problems, it is usually a matter of writing out the definitions and using the triangle inequality.