Consider $\{x_n\}$, a sequence in $\mathbb{R}$, and suppose that $\exists a \in (0,1)$ such that $\lvert x_{n+1} -x_n \lvert\le a^n$ for all $n\in \mathbb{N}$. Then $x_n \to x$ for some $x\in \mathbb{R}$. $\leftarrow$ This is what needs to be proved.
I'm feeling somewhat puzzled because there's a counterexample, where $x_n = \log n$. So, we know that $0 <a^n < 1 $ for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$, but isn't $\lvert\log(n+1)-\log(n)\lvert \le a^n$ for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$, while $\{\log(n)\}$ diverges to $+\infty$?
$$|x_n-x_{n+m}|\leq |x_n-x_{n+1}|+|x_{n+1}-x_{n+2}|+...+|x_{n+m-1}-x_{n+m}|$$ $$\leq a^n+a^{n+1}+...+a^{n+m-1}=a^n(1+a+..+a^{m-1})\leq a^n(1+a+a^2+...)=a^n\frac{1}{1-a}\to 0,\,\forall m\ge 0$$ Therefore $\{x_n\}$ is Cauchy and thus converges.