I've read on this site several times that it is better to say $i^2=-1$ as opposed to $i=\sqrt{-1}$.
If we let $i^2=-1$, why doesn't $i=-\sqrt{-1}$? This makes sense since $(-\sqrt{-1})(-\sqrt{-1})=-1$.
Does the property $x^2=4\Rightarrow x=\pm2$ not hold here? If so, could someone please explain?
Note; This question is unique because I'm asking just about the fact that since $i^2=-1$, why isn't $i$ equal to $\pm\sqrt{-1}$. User64786 and Dietrich Burde's comment's reveal that what I am asking about is different than the tagged question. It seems that the answer is a matter of convention, not algebra.
Thank you.
Neither $\sqrt{-1}$ nor $-\sqrt{-1}$ make sense in the reals, and in fact $i=\sqrt{-1}$ is quasi meaningless.
It is conventional to write
$$i^2=-1$$ where we understand $i$ to be an "operator that rotates by a quarter turn", so that when applied twice it has the effect of a half-turn.
Following this logic, we also have
$$(-i)^2=-1.$$
Actually, it is impossible to tell $i$ from $-i$ (the direction of rotation is immaterial), and we stick to the symbol $i$.