By $o(1)$, I mean 'little-o' of $1$.
A paper I'm reading uses this result, but I can't see where it comes from.
Thanks.
2026-03-27 16:22:51.1774628571
If I colour $n$ vertices independently, randomly with $n^{(1-x)}$ colours, why is the size of the colour classes $(1+o(1))n^x$?
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