If $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2} = \frac{π^2}{6} $$ then $$ \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln x}{1-x^2} dx = -\frac{π^2}{\lambda} $$ then the value of $\lambda$ equals?
My attempt- I tried using integrating by parts to the integral. As a result, I'm left with $$-\frac{1}{2} \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln\left(\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right)}{x} dx $$ Now I'm stuck in here! I don't know how to move on from here! Or maybe integrating by parts was a bad option? If it is, please guide me to a solution or Please help me on how to continue from here! Any help would be appreciated.
Naaah. Since $\frac{1}{1-x^2}=1+x^2+x^4+\ldots$ over $(0,1)$ and $\int_{0}^{1}x^{2n}\log(x)\,dx = -\frac{1}{(2n+1)^2}$,
$$ \int_{0}^{1}\frac{\log x}{1-x^2}\,dx = -\sum_{n\geq 0}\frac{1}{(2n+1)^2} = -\left[\zeta(2)-\tfrac{1}{4}\zeta(2)\right] $$ and $\lambda=\color{red}{8}$.