If $\displaystyle \int^{x}_{0}2x(f(t))^2dt = \bigg(\int^{x}_{0}2f(x-t)dt\bigg)^2$ and $f(1) = 1,$ Then $f(x)$ is
Try: Using $\displaystyle \int^{a}_{0}f(x)dx = \int^{a}_{0}f(a-x)dx$
We can write it as $$\displaystyle x\int^{x}_{0}f^2(t)dt = \bigg(\int^{x}_{0}2f(t)dt\bigg)^2 = 4 \bigg(\int^{x}_{0}f(t)dt\bigg)^2\;\;\;(*)$$
Using Leibnitz Rule of Differentiation
$$xf^2(x)+\int^{x}_{0}f^2(t)dt = 8\int^{x}_{0}f(t)dt\cdot f(x)$$
Again Differentiate w r to $x$
$$x\cdot 2f(x)\cdot f'(x)+f^2(x)+f^2(x)=8f^2(x)+8\int^{x}_{0}f(t)dt$$
Could some help me how to solve it, Thanks
After Leibniz, it should be:
$$xf^2(x)+\int^{x}_{0}f^2(t)dt = \color{red}{4}\int^{x}_{0}f(t)dt\cdot f(x)\;\;\;\;\;(**)$$
Let $$g(x) = \int^{x}_{0}f(t)dt$$
if we multiply $(**)$ with $x$ and use $(*)$ we get:
$$x^2f^2(x) + 4g^2(x) = 4xg(x)f(x)$$
implies $$xf(x)-2g(x)=0 \implies g(x)=xf(x)/2$$
Does this help?
So we have $$xf(x) = 2\int^{x}_{0}f(t)dt$$ and after differentiation we get $$f(x)+xf'(x) = 2f(x)\implies {f'(x)\over f(x)} ={1\over x}$$
So $$(\ln f(x))' = (\ln x )' \implies \ln f(x) =\ln x+ c$$
Since $f(1)=1$ we get $c=0$ and so $\boxed{f(x)=x}$.
Plugging this in to staring formula we see that FE doesn't have a solution.