The following property was stated during a lecture in Algebra:
If K is a finite field and $n \ge 2$ then $Gl_n(K)$ is a non-abelian finite group.
I know how to proof that $Gl_n(K)$ is finite but, is it true that it is not commutative? how could I proof it?
The easiest way to see that the group $GL(n,K)$ is commutative if and only if $n=1$ is to produce matrices $A$ and $B$ with $AB\neq BA$ for $n\ge 2$. Another way is to use that we know that the center $Z$ of $GL(n,K)$ is equal to $K^{\times}\simeq \{ \lambda I_n\mid \lambda\neq 0 \}$ for all $n\ge 1$. Several proofs on MSE can be found, e.g., see here. However, a group $G$ is abelian if and only if $Z(G)=G$. This is for $GL(n,K)$ only the case when $n=1$.