I have been playing around with this identity for a while:
$$\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\sin ax}{bx} = \frac {a} {b}$$
What I realized is that I can generalize this as such:
$$\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\sin f(x)}{g(x)}= \lim_{x\to 0}\frac {f(x)} {g(x)}$$
where
$$\lim_{x\to 0}{f(x)} = \lim_{x\to 0}{g(x)}=0$$
Can you help me figure out whether this is true or not?
I have literally tried all functions I could think of and couldn't find any counterexamples.
I tried using L'Hôpital's rule but I couldn't prove it that way.
I think an epsilon-delta sytle proof could be nice but I don't know how to do it.
I even asked a few math teachers about this in my high school but none could make sense of it.
I would really appreciate some help here.
More generally, for any functions $\phi,\psi$, and functions $f,g$ as in the OP, if $$\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\phi(x)}x=L$$ and $$\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\psi(x)}x=M$$ then
$$\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\phi(f(x))}{\psi(g(x))}=\frac LM\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}.$$
This is because$$\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\phi(f(x))}{\psi(f(x))}=\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\phi(f(x))}{f(x)}\frac{g(x)}{\psi(f(x))}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\phi(f(x))}{f(x)}\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{g(x)}{\psi(f(x))}\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}.$$
E.g.
$$\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\sin(2f(x))}{e^{g(x)}-1}=2\lim_{x\to0}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}.$$