If equation $$\log(ax)\log(bx) +1=0$$ with constants $\;a>0,\; b>0\;$ has a solution $x>0$, it follows that $$\frac{b}{a} \ge ???$$ or $$???\ge\frac{b}{a}\gt???$$
Fill all in the blank.
To be honest, I am very lost here and not sure how I can get into $\frac{b}{a}$ part. The answers provided were $100, 1/100,\;$ and $\;0\;$ respectively.
I would like to hear the perspective of how other people think about this problem. Looking forward to hearing from you!
HINT:
The equation can be rewritten as $$(\log a + \log x))(\log b+ \log x) +1=0.$$ Set $t=\log x$ and expand, the obtained quadratic equation $$t^2+t(\log a + \log b) + \log a \cdot \log b +1=0.$$ The discriminant $D=(\log {a\over b}-2)(\log {a\over b}+2)$ must satisfy $$(\log {a\over b}-2)(\log {a\over b}+2)\geq 0$$ if we want real solutions. Can you finish it from this?