This question have just came to my mind after starting to study some linear algebra. I tried to write the following proof:
Let $\mathbb{V}$ be a vector space.
($\subseteq$) Let $v \in \mathbb{V}$. We can write $v$ as the linear combination $1v$. Hence, $v \in \text{span}(\mathbb{V})$.
($\supseteq$) If we take a linear combination of vectors in $\mathbb{V}$, that linear combination shall also be in $\mathbb{V}$ because $\mathbb{V}$ is a vector space and by definition it is closed under the sum of vectors and the scalar product. Hence, $\text{span}(\mathbb{V}$) is contained in $\mathbb{V}$.$\blacksquare$
I'd like to ask if my proof is correct. I've seen a few times the spanning set written as $A \subset \text{span}(A)$ but why isn't it equal?
Thank you! :)
Yes, it is correct. Reworded a little,
$v \in \mathbb{V} \implies v \in \text{span}(\mathbb{V})$, since $v$ is a (trivial) linear combination of elements in $\mathbb{V}$.
If we take $z \in \text{span}(\mathbb{V})$, then we can write $z = \sum_{i=1}^n \alpha_i v_i$ where, for all $i$, $\alpha_i$ are scalars in $\mathbb{V}$'s underlying field and $v_i \in \mathbb{V}$. It is easy to show from the axioms defining a vector space that they are closed under finite linear combinations, and hence $z \in \mathbb{V}$.
It is enough to define a spanning set with the condition $\text{span}(A) \subseteq A$, since $A \subseteq \text{span}(A)$ is always true for any $A$ by its very definition. (Hence, if $\text{span}(A) \subseteq A$ then $\text{span}(A) = A$ immediately!) Many mathematicians like to boil down definitions to their barest essence, i.e. to show an object satisfies a definition, we verify as few axioms as we truly need to. Sometimes this results in confusion to novices, of course.