I have the following statement "If $\mathbf{A}, \mathbf{B} \in \mathbb{R}^{n \times n}$ are two symmetrical matrices with same eigenvectors then $AB = BA$." (#)
I know that $AB = BA$ => same eigenvectors is a false statement because we can easily find a counterexample. But what's with this (#) statement? A proof is not necessary.
Hint There exists orthogonal matrix $P$ and diagonal $D_1, D_2$ such that $$A=PD_1P^T\\B=PD_2P^T$$
Note The claim still holds if $A,B$ are diagonalisable, $A=PD_1P^{-1}\\B=PD_2P^{-1}$. Symmetric is only used to deduce that the matrices are (orthogonally) diagonalisable.