Problem description: if $T_1$ and $T_2$ are theories such that $\operatorname{Mod}(T_1 \cup T_2) = \emptyset$, then there is a $\sigma$ such that $T_1 \vDash \sigma$ and $T_2 \vDash \neg \sigma$.
I don’t understand how to approach this. Is it even true if I’m not given that $T_1$ and $T_2$ are consistent?
Hints only please; no full solutions. Thanks!
If $T_1 \cup T_2$ is inconsistent, then $T_1 \cup T_2 \vdash \bot$, where $\bot$ is some falsehood such as $\exists x\,(x\neq x)$. Let $S_i$ be all the sentences of $T_i$ that occur in the proof of $\bot$, $i = 1,2$. Then $S_1 \cup S_2\vdash \bot$.
Now let $\sigma_i = \bigwedge_{\varphi\in S_i} \varphi, i = 1,2$. Then $$ \vdash (\sigma_1 \land \sigma_2) \to \bot, $$ i.e. $$ \vdash \sigma_1 \to \neg\, \sigma_2. $$ Note that $T_i \vdash \sigma_i, i = 1,2$.