In my research, I need a counterexample of sequences, and $p(n)$, the $n$- prime number sequence is an important sequence to me. Generally for an arbitrary sequence of the real and positive numbers, such as $a(n)$,
any classification of the $\lim_{n\to \infty} {a(n)}^\frac{1}{n}$ will be useful to me.
However, according to my calculation, this limit must be greater than $1.76151$.
2026-04-06 13:00:55.1775480455
If $p(n)$ be the $n$-th prime number, is $\lim_{n\to \infty} {p(n)}^\frac{1}{n}$ exist and how we can find it if exist?
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The Prime Number Theorem implies $p(n) \sim n \log n$, so $p(n)^{1/n} \to 1$.