If $\sin(\pi x)=a_0+\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n \cos(n\pi x)$ for $0<x<1$ then what is the value of $(a_0+a_1)\pi$?
Honestly I have no idea about how to approach this problem. I tried the expansion of $\sin x$ on the left hand side and then expand $\cos x$ on the right but end up with a mess. Then again $\cos x=(\sin x)'$, but by converting each term on the right hand side into derivative of sine does not give any sensible identity to draw out something. Really out of ideas on this one. Is there any way to do this? Please give me some hints. Thanks for your time.
Apply the integration $\int_0^1 \cos(\pi x) f(x) dx$, then $$\int_0^1 \cos(\pi x) \sin(\pi x) dx=a_0 \int_0^1 \cos(\pi x) dx +\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n \int_0^1 \cos(\pi x) \cos(n\pi x) dx$$
Since $\int_0^1 \cos(\pi x) \cos(n\pi x) dx = 0$ for $n \ne 1$, you have $$\int_0^1 \cos(\pi x) \sin(\pi x) dx=a_0 \int_0^1 \cos(\pi x) dx +a_1 \int_0^1 \cos^2 (\pi x)\ dx$$ which is $0 = 0 + 0.5 a_1$, hence $a1 = 0$.
Likewise just integrate:
$$\int_0^1 \sin(\pi x) dx=a_0 +\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n \int_0^1 \cos(n\pi x) dx$$ which gives $2/\pi = a_0+ 0$.
So the result is $(a_0+a_1)\pi = 2$.