In a text I'm reading, an implication is made:
$$\sin\theta-\cos\theta\leq\mu (\cos\theta + \sin\theta) \quad\implies\quad \tan\theta \leq \frac{1+\mu}{1-\mu}$$
I tried using some trigonometric identities to reproduce this result, but it seems I'm not familiar enough with them.
How was this implication made?
If you divide both sides of the first inequality by $\cos \theta$, you obtain:
$$\frac {\sin \theta - \cos \theta} {\cos \theta} = \tan \theta - 1$$
$$\frac {\mu (\cos \theta + \sin \theta)} {\cos \theta} = \mu ( 1 + \tan \theta)$$
So, assuming $\cos \theta > 0$, from the first inequality you obtain:
$$\tan \theta - 1 \le \mu (1 + \tan \theta) \quad\implies\quad (1 - \mu) \tan \theta \le 1 + \mu$$
Then, assuming $1 - \mu > 0$, you obtain: $$\tan \theta \le \frac {1 + \mu} {1 - \mu}$$
If $\cos \theta < 0$, then by dividing both sides of the first inequality by $\cos \theta$, you must flip the sign. Therefore, the final inequality will be true provided that $1 - \mu < 0$ holds instead.