I have $2$ questions. Here are these:
1) Assume that the union of sets $A$ and $B$ is uncountable. What exactly can we conclude from here?
I think, at least one of these sets is not countable. Or am I wrong? Or should both sets be uncountable?
2) If the number of sets is more than $2$, will the result change?
Thank you.
The question is designed in such a way so that you think inductively.
If $A_1\cup A_2$ has property $P$, then $Q$ is true.
If $A_1\cup\cdots\cup A_n$ has property $P$, then $Q$ remains true.
It is up to you to figure out what $Q$ is here when $P$ represents the property of being uncountable. I hope your assignment makes more sense now.