Suppose we have a group $G$ and a set $S$ and two different group actions $$ \phi:G \to \mathrm{Sym}(S) \qquad \psi:G \to \mathrm{Sym}(S) $$ so that both $\phi$ and $\psi$ are transitive. Can we conclude from this that $\phi = \psi$? If not, what is a counterexample? If not, are there situations in which this does hold, for example, if $S$ is finite?
2026-03-30 23:04:37.1774911877
If two group actions on a set are both transitive, must they be the same?
716 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
3
$G$ acts on itself by left multiplication, $g(x) = gx$, and by right multiplication, $g(x)=xg^{-1}$.
These actions are both transitive, but are not the same except in very special cases -- e.g. by setting $x=1$ we see that it is a necessary condition (which turns out to be sufficient) that every element has order at most $2$.
Every such group is abelian and a vector space over $\mathbb F_2$, and if its dimension is $\ge 2$, Robert Chamberlain's answer gives another set of different group actions.
The only groups where your property can be true are therefore the trivial group and $C_2$ -- and in both these cases it is actually true, though not very interestingly so.
(It is also trivially true if $|S|\le 1$, which is even less interesting -- and vacuously true if there are no transitive actions at all, such as if $|S|$ is nonzero and fails to divide $|G|$).