For any integer x and z , if $x|(x-z)$ then $x|z$
My attempt: suppose $x|(x-z),$ let $y= x-z$
$x|y $ means there is any integer r such that $y=r*x$
So $ x-z=rx $, which equals $(x-z)/(x) =r $ this is where I get stuck.
For any integer x and z , if $x|(x-z)$ then $x|z$
My attempt: suppose $x|(x-z),$ let $y= x-z$
$x|y $ means there is any integer r such that $y=r*x$
So $ x-z=rx $, which equals $(x-z)/(x) =r $ this is where I get stuck.
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You con write: $$\frac {x-z}{x}=k$$ with $k$ integer. This expression si equivalent: $$\frac {x}{x}-\frac {z}{x}=k$$ but you can continue $$1-\frac {z}{x}=k$$ $k$ is integer therefore $x|z$