I have this math question. It states:
Show that for any $a , b ,c, d, e \in \mathbb{Z^+}$, if $a\mid (b-d)$ and $a\mid (c-e)$, then $a\mid (bc-de)$.
I'm not 100% sure as to how to start this problem. At first I tried to rewrite $a\mid (b-d)$ to $b-d = a\cdot x$ and $a\mid (c-e)$ to $c-e = a\cdot y$. Then I multiplied them and got $a^2xy=(b-d)(c-e)$. I'm not sure if this helps though. Thanks.
Take $k,l$ such that $ak=b-d$ and $al=c-e$. Then $$akc=bc-dc\tag{1}$$ and $$ald=cd-ed\tag{2}$$ Summing (1) and (2), we obtain $a(kc+ld)=bc-ed$, so $a|(bc-ed)$.