I'm reading through a paper where I came across the following theorem
Let $A$ be a commutative complex Banach algebra with unit element $e$.
Theorem: A subspace $X\subset A$ of codimension $1$ is a maximal ideal in $A$ if and only if it consists of non-invertible elements.
Proof:
Clearly any maximal ideal satisfies the above condition, so it is sufficient to show that if $\text{codim } X=1$, and if $X$ consists of non-invertible elements, then $X$ is a maximal ideal in $A$.
I understand the rest of the proof, so I will omit the rest. What I feel unsure about in the extract of the proof stated above, is the following:
Why does any maximal ideal clearly satisfy the conditions (ie it consists of non-invertible elements)? My reasoning and trail of thought it something along the following lines:
Non-invertible elements lie in some proper ideal and all proper ideals are contained in maximal ideals. Hence the maximal ideal consists out of non-invertible elements. Is this the correct reasoning? Can anyone perhaps help show me a more mathematically rigorous way of "proving" it?
A maximal ideal is by definition a proper ideal (which happens to not be strictly contained in any other proper ideal). If $I$ is an ideal and an element $x\in I$ is invertible, then $x^{-1}x=e\in I$ so $a=a\cdot e\in I$ for all $a\in A$, so $I=A$. So no proper ideal (and in particular, no maximal ideal) can contain an invertible element.