If $x+y+z=xyz$ then is it true that at most one of the numbers can be negative?
My book says this statement is false but I am not able to think of any counter example.
toppr website says this statement is true.
I have found two links on MSE. I am not able to conclude from that either. Here and here.
Expanding on Anne Bauval's comment.
$$x+y=z(xy-1)\\\implies z=\frac{x+y}{xy-1}$$
Since, $xy\ne1$,
let $x=-2,y=-1$, thus $z=\frac{-2-1}{2-1}=-3$.
It implies the given claim is incorrect. All the three numbers can be negative simultaneously.
Another example, $x=-\frac12, y=-\frac13$, thus, $z=\frac{-\frac12-\frac13}{\frac16-1}=1$.
It shows exactly two numbers can be negative too.