If $y,z$ are elements of an archimedean field $F$ and if $y<z$, then there is a rational element $r$ of $F$ such that $y<r<z$
The proof begins with saying that it is no loss of generality that we assume that $0<y<z$
I don't understand well why this the case. Please guide me .
I think there will be loss of generality because suppose : $z>0$ but still it's possible that $y<0$ i.e. $z \in P ~;~ y \notin P$ where $P$ is a positive class in $F$
Thank you for your help.
It's not because in an ordered field if you have arbitrary elements $a,b,c\in F$ then
$$a<b\iff a+c<b+c$$
Hence if $0<y$, for example, then you can just add $1-y$ to both sides to get
$$0<1<z+1-y$$
and you have $y'=1, z'=z+1-y$ so that your new question is only about positives, and is equivalent.
In particular, say that $r$ is rational between any $y,z\in F$ and say $-N<y$ is an integer less than $y$, then
$$0<y+N<r+N<z+N$$
so that
$$\begin{cases} y'=y+N\\ r'=r+N \\ z'=z+N \end{cases}$$
and $y<r<z\iff y'<r'<z'$, so that things work the same with positives as with any choice. Also, clearly $r'$ is rational.