If you have a filtration in a group does it induce a filtration in a quotient?

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Let us assume that a group $G$ has a filtration $\{N_i\}_{i\in \mathbb{N}}$. Let $A$ be a normal subgroup of $G$. I want to know if it is always $$\bigcap_{i\in \mathbb{N}}N_iA=A?$$

I have not been able to find a counterexample or nor a proof. It seems to me that it should be true but I am not sure how to prove it.

Any help will be appreciated.