Question I'm trying to solve to prepare for an exam.
I need to find out if $\displaystyle\iint_{\mathbb R^2} \frac{dx\,dy}{1+x^{10}y^{10}}$ diverges or converges.
What I did:
I switched to polar coordinates, $x=r\cos \theta$, $y=r\sin\theta$, $J=r$
and so
$$ \begin{align} \iint_{\mathbb R^2} \frac{dx\,dy}{1+x^{10}y^{10}} & =\int_0^{2\pi} \int_0^\infty \frac{r}{1+r^{20} \sin \theta \cos \theta} \, dr \, d\theta \\[8pt] & < \int_0^{2\pi} \int_0^\infty \frac{1}{r^{19}\sin \theta \cos \theta} \, dr \, d\theta \\[8pt] & = \frac{1}{2} \int_0^{2\pi} \int_0^\infty \frac{1}{r^{19}\sin 2\theta} \, dr \, d\theta \\[8pt] & =\frac{1}{2} \int_0^{2\pi} \frac{1}{\sin 2\theta} \, d\theta \int_0^\infty \frac{1}{r^{19}}\,dr \end{align} $$
But note that both $\int_0^\infty \frac{1}{r^{19}}dr$ and $\int_0^{2\pi} \frac{1}{\sin 2\theta} \, d\theta$ do not converge, so we proved nothing.
So that is not the way.
Does this integral converge/ diverge? why?
And also, I'd like to know why $\int_0^{2\pi} \frac{1}{\sin 2\theta} \, d\theta$ does not converge. I know it doesn't because of wolfram, not because i showed it on paper.
Draw the shape around the axes inside the two hyperbolas, and four arcs, given by $xy=1$ and $xy=-1.$ Sort of a cross shape, but infinite, with both axes in its interior. Within this, $x^{10} y^{10} \leq 1,$ then $1 +x^{10} y^{10} \leq 2,$ finally $$ \frac{1}{1 +x^{10} y^{10}} \geq \frac{1}{2}. $$ This region has infinite area, the integral (nonnegative integrand) on the region is infinite. Being a little careful, out to some radius $R,$ the integral on the shape is at least half the area out to that radius; as $R \rightarrow \infty,$ so do the area and the integral.