It it always true that the image of the neutral element in a group homomorphism $f$ is the neutral element of the codomain group regardless whether $f$ is injective/surjective?
The answer is most probably true as written at various places but I can’t understand the following (counter?) example.
Let $G$ be the group $\{0,1\}$ and the mapping $f: G \rightarrow G$ such that for all $x \in G, f(x) = 0$ ; $f$ is indeed a group morphism $f(x*y) = f(x)*f(y)=0$ but the image of the neutral $f(1)$ is $0$ and different to $1$.
Thanks.
As I said in a comment, your $G$ does not seem to be a group, what is the inverse of $0$?
Let's suppose $f : G \rightarrow H$ is a group homomorphism.
The identity of $G$ is $e_G$ and that of $H$ is $e_H$.
Let's distinguish two cases:
Obviously, $f$ maps $e_G$ to $e_H$.
Let $h = f(g)$.
$f(e_Gg) = f(e_G)f(g)$ since $f$ is a homomorphism.
But also $e_G g = g$ so:
$f(g) = f(e_G)f(g)$
$h = f(e_G) h$
$H$ is a group so $h$ has an inverse $h^{-1}$.
$h h^{-1} = f(e_G) h h^{-1}$
$e_H = f(e_G)$.
So the image of $e_G$ is $e_H$.
We did not actually need to distinguish the two cases, it just seemed a little clearer to do so.