Question -
(IMO-2002) Find all functions from the set $\mathbb{R}$ of real numbers to itself such that $$ (f(x)+f(z))(f(y)+f(t))=f(x y-z t)+f(x t+y z) $$
So solution goes like these
The only solutions are $f(x)=0$ for all $x ; f(x)=1 / 2$ for all $x ;$ and $f(x)=x^{2}$ for all $x$ .
Put $x=y=z=0$ to get $f(0)=f(0)(f(0)+f(t))$ for all $t$ . In particular, $f(0)=2 f(0)^{2}$ so that $f(0)=0$ or $f(0)=1 / 2$
If $f(0)=1 / 2,$ then $f(t)=1 / 2$ for all $t$
Suppose $f(0)=0 .$ Putting $z=t=0,$ we get
$f(x y)=$ $f(x) f(y)$ for all $x, y .$ Hence $f$ is multiplicative and $f(1)^{2}=$ $f(1) .$
Thus $f(1)=0$ or $1 .$ If $f(1)=0,$ it is easy to check that $f(x)=0$ for all $x .$
Assuming $f(1)=1,$ taking $x=0, y=$ $t=1,$ we get $f(z)=f(-z)$ for all $z .$ Using $f\left(x^{2}\right)=f(x)^{2}$ for all $x$ and $f(z)=f(-z)$ for all $z,$ infer that $f(x) \geq 0$ for all $x$
Taking $t=x, z=y,$ we get
$f\left(x^{2}+y^{2}\right)=(f(x)+f(y))^{2}$
Thus $f\left(x^{2}+y^{2}\right) \geq f(x)^{2}=f\left(x^{2}\right) .$
This shows that $f(u) \geq$ $f(v)$ if $u \geq v \geq 0 .$
Hence $f$ is an increasing function on the positive reals.
Taking $y=z=t=1,$ we see that $$ f(x-1)+f(x+1)=2(f(x)+1) $$ This implies that $f(n)=n^{2}$ for all non-negative integers $n .$ since $f$ is even, $f(n)=n^{2}$ for all integers $n .$
Using multiplicativity of $f,$ we see that $f(r)=r^{2}$ for all rationals $r .$
since $f$ is increasing on positive reals and $f(r)=r^{2}$ for all rationals, it is easy to show that $f(x)=x^{2}$ for all $x \geq 0$ ...since $f$ is even, we infer that $f(x)=x^{2}$ for all real $x$
now i did not understand why these above lines are true (bold one)
thankyou
Suppose you had an irrational $x$ with $f(x)>x^2$.
Consider a rational $q$ with $$x<q<\sqrt {f(x)}$$
Then $$f(q)=q^2<f(x)$$ contrary to the assumption that $f(x)$ is increasing.
The case $f(x)<x^2$ is similar.