I want to differentiate
$x^2 + y^2=1$ with respect to $x$.
The answer is $2x +2yy' = 0$.
Can some explain what is implicit differentiation and from where did $y'$ appear ? I can understand that $2x +2yy' = 0$ is a partial derivative but then it becomes multi calc not single.
This is in a chapter about chain rule so I assume there is some use of the chain rule here but I can't see any composite functions here. We can express y in terms of x but y is not composite.
P.S: I am NOT looking for HOW to solve the problem, I am looking for the WHY as stated above.
This is a matter of understanding what you're dealing with.
You're asked to differentiate $x^2+y^2=1$. An equation isn't a differentiable function, therefore the equation can't be differentiated.
Now comes the 'translating the problem part'.
The equation $x^2+y^2=1$ 'defines a function', more precisely, there exists a function $g\colon U\to V$ such that $x^2+(g(x))^2=1$, for some sets $U$ and $V$. (A lot can be said about $g, U$ and $V$). Let's assume for the time being that $g$ is differentiable. Now what the problem is actually asking you to do is to differentiate both sides of $x^2+(g(x))^2=1$, yielding $2x+2g(x)g'(x)=0$.
All this is simply the Implicit Function Theorem. The details can be checked on the link.
In two dimensions the theorem goes as follows: