Let's f be define as $F(x,y)=y^3 + 2x^3y^2 + 3x^2y^2 + 6xy^2 + 4y.$ such that F is going from $R^2$ to $R$ (R is a set of real numbers).
Prove that eqsist differentiable function $f$ from $R$ to $R$, such that for every $x$. $$F(x,f(x))=1$$ My only clue is to use Implicit multivarible theorem but I really don't know how.


The conjecture doesn't hold.
The reason is that there are (many) values of $x$ for which $f(x)$ will be multivalued, which contradicts the requirement that $f(x)$ is to be a function.
For example, taking $x=1$ and requiring $F(x,y=f(x))=1$ has three results. Numerically, they can be obtained approximately:
$f_1(1) = 0.1696$
$f_2(1) = -0.5554$
$f_3(1) = -10.614$
REMARK:
I conjecture that there exists a differentiable function $g(y)$ from R \ {0} to R, such that for every y, $F(g(y),y)=1$.
$g(y)$ is the inverse of $f(x)$, so this might help with your problem.