Ordinary differential equations are often of the form $f^{'}(x)=F(f(x),x)$. Solutions to such equations are functions that satisfy them and are differentiable.
If we integrate both sides of the equation we get $f(x)=f(0)+\int_{0}^{x}F(f(t),t)dt$, which looks like a solution but on the other hand we can also view it as an equivalent equation.
Which of those two things is it, is it both?
Anything called solution has to add some information. The transformation into the somewhat equivalent integral form is valid for all explicit order-1 ODE, as you carried out, thus no information gain.
Usually one understands under implicit solution the transformation into some implicit equation $0=G(x,f(x),C)$. This, while still no direct computation procedure for the value $f(x)$ from $x$ alone however provides more information as it allows to numerically compute or at least refine (from one Euler step from the last value for instance) the value $f(x)$ without reference to the whole history up to the initial point.